Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi If you say
that the Hebrew pronoun can mean both "he" and "she" at the
same time then you clearly don't know what you are talking about. To understand
the text, read Revelation Chapter 12 (about the war between the woman and the
serpent or dragon). "She" was the interpretation of all the ancient
Fathers of the Church. In fact, that interpretation is now 2000 years! Even
twentieth century popes (before Vatican II) knew it's "She".
"She" is the OFFICIAL INTERPRETATION OF THE CATHOLIC
CHURCH--irrespective of what "St." John Paul II or any other modern
"scripture scholar" thought.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi This statue
(Mary crushing the head of the serpent) is as old as Catholicism itself. Enter
several Catholic Churches as well as Catholic homes around the world and you
will see it. If you deny it, then something is clearly wrong with your faith.
John D. Lewis: Jonathan, 1.
A footnote provided a couple of hundred years ago by Bishop Challoner, in his
revision of the Douay-Rheims version, state, "The sense is the same: for
it is by her seed, Jesus Christ, that the woman crushes the serpent’s
head."
2. St. Irenaeus of Lyons wrote:
"God said
to the serpent, “And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between
your seed and her seed; He shall be on the watch for your head, and you on the
watch for His heel” [Against Heresies 5:21:1]."
3. St. Paul
says: "the God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet."
Rom 16:19
4. Likewise in a youtube video of a St. Pius X priest he quotes St. Gregory the
Great who says "we crush the head of Satan"
5. St. Maximilian Kolbe, one of THE greatest Marian saints, said WE form the
heel of Mary who crushes the head of Satan. And he said we are to become other
Mary's.
6. Pope Piux IX said in his bull on the Immaculate Conception that Mary is
intimately united to Christ so that it is not her alone but her with Christ who
defeats Satan.
7. the LXX has masculine, while the Masoretic Hebrew has the masculine, as does
the current Vulgate (ipse), but other Hebrew versions had the feminine as did
other versions of the Vulgate (ipsa), and some ancient Jews use the feminine
while others use the masculine. Offspring in the Latin grammar should be
grammatically neuter (ipsum).
Thus, in some, this is a bit of a MYSTERY and we ought not FORCE something to
be black or white when it is black/white/grey. As we are not Sola Scripturians,
we do not "need" the text of Gen 3:15 to have the feminine pronoun
"she" there; rather, we already know by Tradition that while Adam and
Eve said the "No" to God; the 2nd Adam Jesus and 2nd Eve Mary, His
Queen Mother (Gibera in the Hebrew) said their "Yes" to God and
together untied the knot of sin of Adam and Eve and together crushed the head
of Satan at Golgatha. Thus, it seems to me the best translation of the Latin is
the collective ipsum, which is both grammatically correct and theologically
correct as it also matches Romans 16 and Revelation 12.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Mary,
not Christ, is the "she" that crushes the head of the serpent (of
course through the power of Christ who is God). See also Revelation chapter 12
on the war between the woman and the serpent or dragon. If you want to dispute
the statue below, then I don't think I have anything to discuss with you
because I think only a non-Catholic can do that.
(And John D.
Lewis disappeared! Joshua Baldwin appeared! Joshua Baldwin took my
simplicity for granted so he totally underrated me! He didn’t even bother to
read my article; rather he came with the assumption that I was completely
ignorant of “the original languages”!)
Joshua Baldwin: The USCCB
has a list of approved translations that are all faithful to the original
languages. These are the translations used in the Mass. As someone who has
studied original languages, the article in the OP is basically just
inflammatory silliness, and is written by clueless idiots.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi Well if
I'm not mistaken, I checked the USCCB list and saw Revised Standard Version
there—which also contains the errors. Try to get the Douay-Rheims Version (one
of the oldest Bibles in the world). Read it and then read the modern ones too
to see the massive errors in them.
Joshua Baldwin: Only the
RSV Second Catholic Edition (RSV-2CE) is approved. The original RSV that you
are probably thinking of, Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi, was never an
approved translation.
Joshua Baldwin: Also, to
properly identify errors in Bible translations, you must go back to original
languages. Douay-Rheims is a great translation, but it is not impeccably free
of translation errors.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: My point
is simple: the errors I've just pointed out are in VIRTUALLY ALL modern English
versions.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: You
parade yourself as "someone who has studied original languages", yet
you have no problem with the errors in modern translations which I pointed out.
But you are QUICK to declare that the Douay-Rheims Version has errors. You
wrote: "Douay-Rheims is a great translation, but it is not impeccably free
of translation errors." Kindly point out those errors.
Joshua Baldwin: Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi I did
not say that modern translations are error-free. The problem with your argument
is your methodology—you aren’t going back to original languages, but you simply
cannot make an argument regarding translation accuracy without going back to
original languages. You simply haven’t demonstrated ANYTHING worth anyone’s
time.
Joshua Baldwin: Basically,
the way I understand your argument is “Hello world, I found differences between
the DRV and newer translations, therefore, the newer translations are all wrong
and the DRV is right”. I apologize if that’s a straw-man of your argument, but
if it is your argument, then it’s a really bad argument because there is much
that needs to be taken into consideration.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Joshua Baldwin, I pointed out the errors for
fellow Catholics to see, NOT for people like you. Your very thinking is
unchristian so I can't really respond to all your trash! But I think my only
request is a simple one. You wrote: "Douay-Rheims is a great translation,
but it is not impeccably free of translation errors." And I responded: "Kindly
point out those errors."
Joshua Baldwin: Your
argument is too vague to precisely answer that question, because you are
imprecise in which DRV translation you are even referring to. In case you are
unaware, the original DRV translation was based on the Latin Vulgate, and a
later revised DRV translation was produced in the 18th century by Bishop
Richard Challoner, who made a significant number of changes based on
scholarship that had been done on the precise language used in the original
Greek and Hebrew. Bp. Challoner also updated the spelling, vocabulary, and
sentence structure of the DRV.
So, because you aren’t even bothering to be clear which version of the DRV you
are speaking of, it is not really worthwhile to answer your question. It’s also
an irrelevant red herring for the MASSIVE problems with your article.
Your entire argument, however, betrays an inherent misunderstanding of how
Scripture translation works. I think I can safely assume that you have never
really studied original languages at all, so I’ll go through some basics.
First, translations of Scripture must start with the original languages in
order to be an accurate translation (and by that definition, the original DRV
cannot be considered accurate). Second, you show no understanding at all of
manuscript issues. The compilations of the texts of the original languages used
for translation must in turn make use of the oldest and most authentic
manuscripts in order to determine the most accurate original text. You see, the
original texts themselves must not be considered to be a static document, but
have grown more accurate with continuing research in Biblical manuscripts over
time.
So, how did your article measure up? Very poorly. You started by comparing one
translation to another while asserting the accuracy of one as a critique of the
other, with no real effort to reference the original languages. Then, by
extolling an “older is better” rubric without even demonstrating an awareness
of how textual scholarship works, you simply are making a laughingstock of
yourself to theologically educated Catholics.
Joshua Baldwin: So, as far as
“trash” goes, anyone knowledgeable in translation and manuscript processes
would dismiss your OP accordingly.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Your
previous comment: "...you aren’t going back to original languages, but you
simply cannot make an argument regarding translation accuracy without going
back to original languages."
My response: Did you really read the article at all or are you actually a mad
man?
(And Joshua
Baldwin disappeared! Fr. Louis Melahn reappeared).
Fr. Louis Melahn: Respectfully,
this site is spouting silliness. What you want is a good
translation that is faithful to the Greek (in the New Testament) or the Hebrew
(in the Old Testament). (Although it is slightly different, a translation based
on the Septuagint for the Old Testament is also fine.) Over all, I favor the
English Standard Version (ESV).
It is well known that the Latin translations (Vetus Latina and the Jerome’s
Vulgate) made a small error in translating the Hebrew text of Genesis 3:15. It
really has no impact on doctrinal issues one way or the other.
Josh Young (quoting the online article
I cited): “They do this systematically by treating the various books that
make up the Bible as separate books, and holding the view that each of these
books should be studied according to their writers’ “cultural contexts””
If that’s “discarding” the Bible, I have no intention of stopping. Good thing
it’s not. How can you understand any work without understanding what the
culture that produced it?
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: The Bible
is a Sacred Book inspired by God, not (like secular literature) a product of
culture!
Samuel Chance (a
Protestant supporting my opponent Novus Ordites): We must remember that the
Bible was not written to us. It is for us, but it wasn’t addressed to us. We
are not the original readers or intended audience. It’s vital to understand the
scriptures to also understand the historical and cultural context that they
were written within.
(Please read the
article to see his massive error: Initially I thought Samuel Chance—massively
supported with “likes” by all the “Catholics” here—was a Catholic. I was
wrong!)
Samuel Chance: It’s post
like this that convince Protestants that Catholics are crazy Mary worshippers.
Let’s try to have a little bit of a scholarly approach to these things.
Samuel Chance: Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi I mean
this post is full of assumptions, and poor scholarship. So for Protestants this
post only affirms the thought that Catholics have abandoned Christ in favour of
worshiping Mary.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: You say
so because you are NOT a Catholic. If you think you are, you are fooling
yourself.
Samuel Chance: Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi no I say
so because it’s the truth. Just because I’m not catholic doesn’t mean I’m
wrong. In the Hebrew the pronoun can be either masculine or feminine. When we
compare this passage to the other prophesies about Jesus, it becomes clear that
this passage in genesis is talking about Jesus Christ crushing Satan. And not
at all about Mary. It amazes me how Catholics ascribe godlike characteristics
to Mary. We must remember that while Mary was special because God chose her to
bear Jesus into this world, she was still 100% human. Mary is not deity. She is
a human that was chosen by God to do something very special, but she was still
human, and Jesus is still God. Please stop switching it around to make Mary the
same as God.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Samuel Chance, Catholicism never teaches that
Mary is a goddess. She is human. But she is actually DIFFERENT from you and
DIFFERENT from every other woman—the very reason why Elizabeth, filled with the
Holy Spirit, cried out: "BLESSED ART THOU AMONG WOMEN" (Luke 1: 42).
Of course, contrary to the diabolical impression the devil often gives through
people like you, Mary is BLESSED AMONG ALL WOMEN simply because she is the
MOTHER OF CHRIST.
You wrote: "When we compare this passage to the other prophesies about
Jesus, it becomes clear that this passage in genesis is talking about Jesus
Christ". So I ask: How can the passage which says "I will put enmity
between thee and THE WOMAN suddenly be "talking about Jesus"? If it's
talking about Jesus, why does the passage say that the "enmity" is
between the serpent and "THE WOMAN"? Why the "ENMITY BETWEEN
THEE AND THE WOMAN"? Do you really know what you are talking about?
The pronoun in the Hebrew words “יְשׁוּפְךָ֣” (ye•shu•fe•cha) was rightly
translated by the Church Fathers as “she” because it actually refers to “she”,
NOT “he”. Revelation Chapter 12 (on the war between THE WOMAN and the serpent
or dragon) makes this very clear. That is the OFFICIAL CATHOLIC INTERPRETATION
OF the text—hence the reason why—EVEN TILL DATE!—we still have the statue below
(and NOT that of a “he”!) in several Catholic Churches around the world:
Samuel Chance: Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi Because
the passage talks about the seed of the woman, her off spring. It’s a prophesy
about Jesus Christ. Now, even if I grant you that it is not talking about Jesus
and is indeed talking about a woman. The woman mentioned can be seen as no one
other than Eve, not Mary. Because at this time God is talking to and about Eve.
The seed of the woman is Eve’s off spring. This passage has nothing to do with
Mary.
As far as Mary being different from you and I, she is different only because
she was chosen to bear Jesus into this world. She is not different in any other
way. She was 100% human. She is human just like every other human ever to live.
She died just like every other human to ever live. She is not deity, she is not
part God, she is human. She is a special human, just like Moses, the prophets,
David, etc. just like them she was chosen by God for him to work through. But
she was still a human being.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi You wrote:
“Because the passage talks about the seed of the woman, her off spring. It’s a
prophesy about Jesus Christ. Now, even if I grant you that it is not talking
about Jesus and is indeed talking about a woman. The woman mentioned can be
seen as no one other than Eve, not Mary. Because at this time God is talking to
and about Eve. The seed of the woman is Eve’s off spring. This passage has
nothing to do with Mary.”
I respond: No, as far as this passage is concerned you are completely CLUELESS!
Cardinal Newman (who like you was formerly a Protestant) wrote the following
after his conversion to Catholicism: “Mary is the first of all
creatures, the most acceptable child of God, the nearest and dearest to him”.
Why did the cardinal call her “the first born of all creatures”? Because he was
referring to this same Genesis 3:15.
Genesis 3:15 is a prophecy made by God Himself REFERRING TO THE NEW EVE, MARY.
The sin of Adam and Eve injured the good relationship between God and His
family (Gen. 3:23), and also among the family members themselves (Gen. 4: 8).
God then, out of His love for mankind, decided to bring unity and love back to
His broken family. To do this, God decided to create a new Eve who would give
birth to a new Adam. Mary is this new Eve and Jesus—God Himself coming in the
likeness of man—the new Adam. Unlike the old Adam and the old Eve, whom the
serpent deceived, these new Adam and Eve will defeat the serpent. This new Eve,
Mary, is the woman presented in the Revelation (12 : 17) as the Mother of all
those who obey God’s commandments and are faithful to the truth revealed by
Jesus Christ—the Mother of all true Christians. This is the special role Mary
played in the salvation of mankind. Of all mankind, she alone was pure enough
and strong enough in faith and spirit to become the new Eve who, with the new
Adam, would reverse the fall of man. Her prayer drew Jesus from heaven to this
earth; her will and flesh conceived Him, and her milk nourished Him. Her
surpassing love enveloped Him and enabled Him to grow in age and strength and
wisdom. Indeed, in a real way she moulded Him who had made her.
You continued: “As far as Mary being different from you and I, she is different
only because she was chosen to bear Jesus into this world. She is not different
in any other way. She was 100% human. She is human just like every other human
ever to live. She died just like every other human to ever live. She is not
deity, she is not part God, she is human. She is a special human, just like
Moses, the prophets, David, etc. just like them she was chosen by God for him
to work through. But she was still a human being.”
I respond: No, you are completely wrong. In the Catholic Church, Mary is
honoured as the ‘‘Mother of God.’’ As the MOTHER OF GOD she is GREATER THAN
EVERY OTHER HUMAN BEING THAT EVER LIVED--including Moses and the rest!
Protestants hold that this title (MOTHER OF GOD) is man-made but they are
completely wrong. On the contrary, it was God Himself who made her the MOTHER
OF GOD! Also, it was God Himself--and NOT Catholics!--who first honoured her
through the mouth of the Angel Gabriel, as we read: “And the angel being come
in, said unto her: Hail full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou
among women.” (Luke 1: 28) Elizabeth, filled with the Holy Spirit, called Mary
‘Mother of my Lord’: “But why is this granted to me, that the mother of my Lord
should come to me?” she asks (Luke 1: 43). Mary herself testified:
‘‘Behold,…from now on all generations shall call me blessed: because He that is
mighty has done something great for me, and holy is His name’’. (Luke 1:
48-49): These generations, who will call her blessed, we find only in the
Catholic Church. CATHOLICS ALONE are “the remnant of her seed” whom the serpent
or dragon went to make war with after that ancient serpent failed woefully to
destroy the woman. As we read: “And the dragon was angry against the woman: and
went to make war with the rest of her seed, who keep the commandments of God,
and have the testimony of Jesus Christ” (Rev. 12:17).
Finally, Mary DID NOT "die just like every other human being"! After
death her body DID NOT experience corruption. She was rather taken up (BODY AND
SOUL) into heaven! Time is short. Get converted to true Christianity
(Catholicism) to start learning these things.
Samuel Chance: You are
making wildly unsupported claims. Please provide scriptural evidence for “After
death her body DID NOT experience corruption. She was rather taken up (BODY AND
SOUL) into heaven!”
As far as Mary being the greatest of all creation, that is clearly false. Jesus
himself said that John the Baptist is the greatest in Matt 11:11 “I tell you
the truth: Among those born of women there has not risen anyone greater than
John the Baptist.”
Mary is human. Was she special? Yes. But she was a human being. Stop granting
godlike characteristics to someone who was certainly not human.
“Behold,…from now on all generations shall call me blessed: because He that is
mighty has done something great for me, and holy is His name’’. (Luke 1: 48-49)
You quoted the above passage as proof that Mary was blessed and she was. But
notice that her focus was on God’s name being holy, not her own.
You Catholics have become idolaters to Mary rather than worshipping solely
Jesus Christ. It’s sad really how many Catholics will be damned to hell because
of their heretical beliefs.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi The very
reason why we call you "PROTESTANT HERETICS"! You simply don't know
anything about Christianity. The only thing you know how to do well is to
blaspheme. Sad!
Samuel Chance: Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi are you
going to provide scriptural support for your claims? It’s not blasphemy to ask
you to support your heretical position. I think you will find that it’s not I
who worship false gods but you. I’ve asked for scriptural support that Mary was
not merely a regular human. I’ve asked for scriptural support that she did not
die just like everyone else, I’ve even asked for scriptural support for your
claim that she was the greatest of all creation. You have provided not one single
scripture verse for any of those claims. It is you who are in error, not I.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Your very
thinking is unchristian! We don’t worship Mary. This is very clear in our
catechism. But we honour her because she is the Mother of God. Asking me to
show you EVERYTHING in the Bible shows you are completely clueless about this
Bible! There are written and unwritten traditions and we Catholics believe in
both. As St. Paul affirmed, “Stand fast, and hold the traditions which you have
learned, whether by word or by epistle” ( 2 Thess. 2: 15; 3:6). When St. Paul
says “by word” he means things—like Mary’s assumption into heaven—that are not
written in the Bible. When he says “by epistle” he means things that are
written down. This divine tradition to which St Paul refers—this revealed truth
which was handed down by word rather than by letter—is the tradition upon
which, along with the Bible, the Catholic Church bases her tenets of faith.
You want me to show you Mary’s assumption and every other thing in the Bible?
But can you also show me the word “Bible” in the Bible?
As I once wrote on the concept of purgatory, “Protestants teach that the word
“purgatory” is nowhere in the Bible and therefore is purely a Catholic
fabrication. They are completely wrong. It is true that the word “purgatory” is
nowhere in the Bible, but this does not mean that the concept is not there. In
fact, there are many other words commonly used today even by Protestants which
are nowhere in the Bible. For instance, many of the Protestants “believe” in
the “Trinity”, in the “Incarnation” and in the “Bible.” But these words are
nowhere in the Bible! Have the Protestants considered the fact that even the
word “Bible” is nowhere in the Bible? Do they know that this word, just like
the word “purgatory”, is one of those words “fabricated” by the Catholic
Church?
“The words
“Bible”, “Pope”, “Purgatory”, “Trinity”, etc, were coined by the Catholic Church.
They are nowhere in the Bible but their concepts are perfectly there. In the
Bible, they are referred to by other names. The Bible, for example, is referred
to as “scripture.” The Pope is referred to as the “Rock” of the Church or as
the “Shepherd” (cf. Matt. 16:17-19; John 10: 16; 21: 15-17), and so on.”
Samuel Chance: So
basically you have no biblical basis for any of your claims so you are
appealing to the “church” and their traditions. Nice. That’s all you needed to
say was that you have no biblical basis for your claims. You cannot base
doctrinal theology on hearsay from 2000 years ago. It can’t and doesn’t work
that way.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: But you
are behaving like a moron now! If you don't think so, kindly explain what this
passage is saying: “Stand fast, and hold the traditions which you have learned,
whether by word or by epistle” ( 2 Thess. 2: 15; 3:6).
Samuel Chance: You seem
to think that passage is a trump card that allows the church to teach whatever
it wants without having to biblically support its claims. It's not. Did
everything the apostles teach get written down? No, of course not. However,
that does not give you liberty to create/make up things that are unsupported
elsewhere in the Bible. For example, can you provide one single passage from
scripture or the Apostolic fathers that supports your claim that Mary did not
die like everyone else? That her body was magically transported to heaven? If
not then your claim doesn't fall under the "traditions" of the
apostles mentions in 2 Thessalonians.
The word "traditions" in 2 Thessalonians is not a free for all. Those
traditions when being used to support/create doctrinal claims, must also be
supported by the writings of the apostles and early church fathers.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: The
Assumption is “magical”? Okay. But you are COMPLETELY IGNORANT of what St. Paul
is talking about in 2 Thessalonians! You wrote: “The word
"traditions" in 2 Thessalonians is not a free for all. Those
traditions when being used to support/create doctrinal claims, must also be
supported by the writings of the apostles and early church fathers.”
My response: The Assumption of Mary into heaven is neither a mere “claim” nor a
“make up”! You said so because you certainly don’t know anything about it. The
Assumption simply dates back to the apostles of Christ! No comment of mine this
time around. Father Clifford Stevens writes from Tintern Monastery in Oakdale,
Neb:
The Assumption
is the oldest feast day of Our Lady, but we don't know how it first came to be
celebrated.
Its origin is lost in those days when Jerusalem was restored as a sacred city,
at the time of the Roman Emperor Constantine (c. 285-337). By then it had been
a pagan city for two centuries, ever since Emperor Hadrian (76-138) had leveled
it around the year 135 and rebuilt it as <Aelia Capitolina> in honor of
Jupiter.
For 200 years, every memory of Jesus was obliterated from the city, and the
sites made holy by His life, death and Resurrection became pagan temples.
After the building of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre in 336, the sacred sites
began to be restored and memories of the life of Our Lord began to be
celebrated by the people of Jerusalem. One of the memories about his mother
centered around the "Tomb of Mary," close to Mount Zion, where the
early Christian community had lived.
On the hill itself was the "Place of Dormition," the spot of Mary's
"falling asleep," where she had died. The "Tomb of Mary"
was where she was buried.
At this time, the "Memory of Mary" was being celebrated. Later it was
to become our feast of the Assumption.
For a time, the "Memory of Mary" was marked only in Palestine, but
then it was extended by the emperor to all the churches of the East. In the
seventh century, it began to be celebrated in Rome under the title of the
"Falling Asleep" ("Dormitio") of the Mother of God.
Soon the name
was changed to the "Assumption of Mary," since there was more to the
feast than her dying. It also proclaimed that she had been taken up, body and
soul, into heaven.
That belief was ancient, dating back to the apostles themselves. What was clear
from the beginning was that there were no relics of Mary to be venerated, and
that an empty tomb stood on the edge of Jerusalem near the site of her death.
That location also soon became a place of pilgrimage. (Today, the Benedictine
Abbey of the Dormition of Mary stands on the spot.)
At the Council of Chalcedon in 451, when bishops from throughout the
Mediterranean world gathered in Constantinople, Emperor Marcian asked the
Patriarch of Jerusalem to bring the relics of Mary to Constantinople to be
enshrined in the capitol. The patriarch explained to the emperor that there
were no relics of Mary in Jerusalem, that "Mary had died in the presence
of the apostles; but her tomb, when opened later . . . was found empty and so
the apostles concluded that the body was taken up into heaven."
In the eighth century, St. John Damascene was known for giving sermons at the
holy places in Jerusalem. At the Tomb of Mary, he expressed the belief of the
Church on the meaning of the feast: "Although the body was duly buried, it
did not remain in the state of death, neither was it dissolved by decay. . . .
You were transferred to your heavenly home, O Lady, Queen and Mother of God in
truth."
All the feast days of Mary mark the great mysteries of her life and her part in
the work of redemption. The central mystery of her life and person is her
divine motherhood, celebrated both at Christmas and a week later (Jan. 1) on
the feast of the Solemnity of Mary, Mother of God. The Immaculate Conception
(Dec. 8) marks the preparation for that motherhood, so that she had the
fullness of grace from the first moment of her existence, completely untouched
by sin. Her whole being throbbed with divine life from the very beginning,
readying her for the exalted role of mother of the Saviour.
The Assumption completes God's work in her since it was not fitting that the
flesh that had given life to God himself should ever undergo corruption. The
Assumption is God's crowning of His work as Mary ends her earthly life and
enters eternity. The feast turns our eyes in that direction, where we will
follow when our earthly life is over.
The feast days of the Church are not just the commemoration of historical
events; they do not look only to the past. They look to the present and to the
future and give us an insight into our own relationship with God. The
Assumption looks to eternity and gives us hope that we, too, will follow Our
Lady when our life is ended.
The prayer for the feast reads: "All-powerful and ever-living God: You
raised the sinless Virgin Mary, mother of your Son, body and soul, to the glory
of heaven. May we see heaven as our final goal and come to share her glory."
In 1950, in the Apostolic Constitution <Munificentissimus Deus>, Pope
Pius XII proclaimed the Assumption of Mary a dogma of the Catholic Church in
these words: "The Immaculate Mother of God, the ever-virgin Mary, having
completed the course of her earthly life, was assumed body and soul into heaven."
With that, an ancient belief became Catholic doctrine and the Assumption was
declared a truth revealed by God.
(And Samuel
Chance disappeared!)
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: Fr. Louis Melahn, you still
haven't clarified your statement that "Latin translations (Vetus Latina
and the Jerome’s Vulgate) made a small error in translating the Hebrew text of
Genesis 3:15.)" Do you mean that the text should have been "he"
(or even they) instead of "she"? Please clarify.
Louis Melahn: Correct. The
Hebrew and the Greek Septuagint clearly say, “He [i.e., the seed—that is the
descendant—of the woman] will crush his [the serpent’s] head.”
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: NO, you are
wrong. The Douay-Rheims Version (where it's translated as "she") is
perfectly correct.
Louis Melahn: Can you provide evidence
for that? Here is the Septuagint’s text (which I happen to have at hand): αὐτός
σου τηρήσει κεφαλήν, καὶ σὺ τηρήσεις αὐτοῦ πτέρναν (“He will watch against your
head, and you [the serpent] will watch against his [masculine] heel,” Gen
3:15).
The first word,
αὐτός, and the other reference to the “seed,” αὐτοῦ, are clearly the masculine
“he.”
Let me look up the Hebrew.....
Louis Melahn: Ok, well rather
than put it here, I will direct you to the word-for-word translation of Genesis
3:15 at BibleHub:
בראשית 3:15
Hebrew OT: WLC (Consonants Only)ואיבה ׀ אשית בינך ובין האשה ובין זרעך ובין זרעה הוא ישופך ראש ואתה תשופנו עקב׃ ס
Louis Melahn: In any case,
clearly the masculine pronoun “he” is used, as in the Septuagint.
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: The LXX chose to
render the Hebrew pronoun hu' with autos, making it a masculine, BUT the
original Hebrew does not say that. The Vulgate, on the other hand, rendered
this same pronoun with the FEMININE IPSA!
Louis Melahn: OK, that would be a rather
innovative position. Do you have a scholarship to back that up?
Jonathan Ekene Ifeanyi: You wrote:
"Latin translations (Vetus Latina and the Jerome’s Vulgate) made a small
error in translating the Hebrew text of Genesis 3:15.)" Again you wrote:
“The Hebrew and the Greek Septuagint clearly say, “He [i.e., the seed—that is
the descendant—of the woman] will crush his [the serpent’s] head.”
I respond: These two statements are simply NOT TRUE!
First of all we are dealing with the Old Testament Bible here. The Old
Testament—unlike the New Testament which was written in Greek—was originally
written in Hebrew. The Septuagint (Greek translation) is your authority while
the Latin Vulgate (Latin translation) is my own authority. But among these two
which one was OFFICIALLY APPROVED by the Catholic Church?
The Septuagint is a translation into Greek of the Hebrew Bible, obtaining its
name (meaning ‘translation of the 70’) from a legend in the Letter of Aristeas
(2nd century BC) about its composition as the work of 72 scholars, six from
each of the twelve tribes of Israel. The translation was begun in the 3rd
century B.C. to meet the need of Greek-speaking Jews in the Diaspora, but work
progressed by several stages over about a century. The Septuagint has a
different order of books from that in the Hebrew canon. Although the early
Christians adopted the Septuagint as their preferred version of the Old
Testament—which made the Septuagint to lose its favour among the Jews—the
Septuagint was NOT ERROR-FREE. St. Augustine discussed some of these errors in
Book XV chapter 14 of his massive work De Civitate Dei. Already in the 3rd
century AD Origen had attempted to clear up copyists' errors that had crept
into the text of the Septuagint, which by then varied widely from copy to copy.
Other scholars also consulted the Hebrew text in order to make the Septuagint
text more accurate. NOTE: The Septuagint, not the original Hebrew, was the main
basis for the Old Latin, Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian, Georgian, Slavonic, and
part of the Arabic translations of the Old Testament.
Now the LATIN VULGATE: In 382 Pope Damasus commissioned Jerome, the leading
biblical scholar of his day, to produce an acceptable Latin version of the
Bible from the various translations then being used. Jerome’s revised Latin
translation of the Gospels appeared about 383. Using the Septuagint Greek
version of the Old Testament, he produced new Latin translations of the Psalms,
the Book of Job, and some other books. But later, the saint decided that the
Septuagint was UNSATISFACTORY and began translating THE ENTIRE OLD TESTAMENT
FROM THE ORIGINAL HEBREW VERSIONS, a process that he completed about 405 AD.
Thus the Latin Vulgate is the translation of the Bible, originating with St.
Jerome, who attempted to provide an AUTHORITATIVE ALTERNATIVE TO THE CONFUSING
ARRAY OF OLD LATIN VERSIONS in his day. From about the 7th century AD—when
there were simply nothing like Protestant “Christians”—this Latin Vulgate
emerged in Western Christianity as the FAVOURITE LATIN VERSION (‘Vulgate’
meaning the ‘common edition’). In 1546 the Council of Trent DECREED that the
Vulgate was the EXCLUSIVE LATIN AUTHORITY FOR THE BIBLE. The Council recognised
it as THE OFFICIAL LATIN TEXT OF THE ROMAN CATHOLIC CHURCH. The Douay-Rheims
Version, one of the oldest Catholic Bibles in the world, was translated from
this Latin Vulgate. It's CATHOLIC. It’s accurate.
The Douay-Reims Bible is English translation of the Latin Vulgate Bible
produced by Catholic scholars in exile from England
at the English College in Douai (then in the Spanish Netherlands but now part
of France). The New Testament translation was published in 1582 at Rheims,
where the English College had temporarily relocated in 1578. The Old Testament
was translated shortly afterwards but was not published until 1609–10, in
Douai. The purpose of the translation was to provide English-speaking
Catholics with an authoritative Catholic version of the Bible, as an
alternative to the several Protestant translations then in existence. The
original Douay-Reims contained many polemic notes protesting Protestant
heresies.
Please note that
there were—over the years—also efforts by Catholic churchmen to “revise” and
corrupt the Latin Vulgate, as noted in the book “Dictionary of Beliefs and
Religions”, but those efforts were not completely successful. (Today the evil
forces are still working. In 1965 for instance a “commission” was
established by the heretical Second Vatican Council to “revise” the
Vulgate! Hence Paul VI’s Nova Vulgata (1979) says ipsum conteret
caput tuum (“it will crush your head”!). Note also that modern
Catholics—Novus Ordites in particular—who use modern false editions like the
Good News and RSV that say “he shall crush” instead of “she
shall crush” have always based their argument for doing so on the
footnotes provided a couple of hundred years ago by Bishop Challoner in his
“revision” of the Douay-Rheims, which said: “The sense [of these two
readings] is the same: for it is by her seed, Jesus Christ, that the woman
crushes the serpent’s head.” But let’s face the reality: can you tell
the Protestants—who simply REMOVE MARY—that “The sense [of these two
readings] is the same: for it is by her seed, Jesus Christ, that the woman
crushes the serpent’s head.”? Of course NO! The Protestants can’t accept
that and the most unfortunate thing is that even most contemporary “Catholics”
who use these Bibles that say “he” instead of “she” interpret the passage
EXACTLY LIKE THE PROTESTANTS!
Bishop
Challoner’s revision of the Douay Rheims Bible is not the original Douay
Rheims Bible but in fact one of those corrupted ones. On this
Challoner’s "revision"—which unfortunately most traditional
Catholics use today!—the Catholic Encyclopaedia of 1909 A.D. states:
“Although the Bibles in use at the present day by the Catholics of England and
Ireland are popularly styled the Douay Version, they are most improperly so
called; they are founded, with more or less alteration, on a series of
revisions undertaken by Bishop Challoner in 1749-52 . . .
"The changes introduced by him were so considerable that, according to
Cardinal Newman, they almost amounted to a new translation. So, also, Cardinal
Wiseman wrote, 'To call it any longer the Douay or Rheimish Version is an abuse
of terms. It has been altered and modified until scarcely any verse remains as
it was originally published.' In nearly every case Challoner's changes
took the form of approximating to the Authorized Version [King James]...”
Let us beware!
If one buys a “Douay-Rheims Bible” today it is typically a copy of the 1899
Challoner version, which is but a pale reflection of the REAL Douay-Rheims! The
text does not follow the original Douay-Rheims, and it is usually found
with hardly any of the voluminous notes and annotations of the
original REAL Douay-Rheims.
Another supposed
“Douay-Rheims” Bible being widely sold today is the Haydock Bible.
Unfortunately it is another Challoner variation!
The 1909
Catholic Encyclopaedia under the subject "Haydock,
George Leo" says the following concerning the “Haydock
Bible” now being erroneously sold as the “Douay-Rheims”!:
“Father
Haydock's chief publication was a new edition of the English translation
of the Latin Vulgate first published at Reims in 1582, and at
Douai in 1609; Bishop Challoner's text of 1750 was the
basis of the work, but in the New Testament Dr. Troy's edition of
1794 is largely followed. The notes are partly original, partly selected from
other writers, those on the New Testament not having been compiled by
Father Haydock. The edition appeared in Manchester, 1812-14; Dublin,
1812-13; Edinburgh and Dublin, 1845-8; New York, 1852-6.”
So, we see that
Father Haydock’s version is not the Douay-Rheims, is not only
the Challoner version, but the New Testament is largely the Troy
version of 1794, and, the notes for the New Testament are not his
notes.
John Henry
[later Cardinal] Newman in his July, 1859 “Rambler” article states:
“We must not
conclude this enumeration of revisions and reprints of the Rheims and Douay,
... which were published ... without direct episcopal sanction... This is
Haydock's Bible... [T]he respective publishers, were printers; but the
editor and annotator employed by the former was his own brother, who was a
priest, the Rev. George Haydock, to whom the edition owes its celebrity.”
And the
so-called “Troy Version” used by Fr. Haydock ?
Newman in
the July, 1859 “Rambler” article entitled “The History of the Text
of the Rheims and Douay Version of Holy Scripture”, writes:
“...The revisor was the Rev. Bernard Macmahon, a Dublin
priest, who published his first edition in 1783, in 12mo, with the formal
approbation of his Archbishop, Dr. Carpenter. There is reason for supposing
that it professed to be a continuation of Dr. Challoner's labours; for, as that
venerable prelate published successively three corrected editions of the New
{423} Testament, in 1749, 1750, and 1752 (for the subsequent editions are not
new corrections, but almost fac-similes of the
preceding: vide Cotton, p. 20, &c.), so this new Dublin edition is called,
in the Archbishop's approbation prefixed to it, "the fourth edition,
revised and corrected anew." This is Dr. Cotton's conjecture also, though
he accompanies it, as is not unusual with him, with a gratuitous piece of
ill-nature. If the "fourth" does not mean this, it is difficult to
say to what previous edition it refers; for, at the time that it was published,
there had been already five editions of the Rheims. Leaving this point, we are
told by Dr. Cotton that the variations from Challoner's text, in the Gospels,
are about 50; in the Acts and subsequent books, above 500. Eight years
afterwards, in 1791, the same clergyman was selected by Dr. Troy, his then
Archbishop, to superintend an edition of the whole Bible in quarto; and on this
occasion, according to the same authority, he introduced into the New Testament
above 200 changes more, calling it the "fifth edition." In 1794 it
was reprinted in folio, forming "the sixth;" a "seventh
edition" of the New Testament was published in 12mo in 1803, with above
100 variations from the text of 1791, in favour of that of 1783; and an
"eighth" in 1810, in 12mo also, after the text of the seventh....We
doubt ...whether he is further from the Protestant version than Dr. Challoner.”
PLEASE NOTE: while the verse in the Challoner's Version says, "she
shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel", the
original Douay-Rheims Bible says, “she shall bruise thy head
in pieces, and thou shalt lye in wait of her heele”—the same meaning.
You are right, Father, in your statement that (in the Septuagint) the first
word in Genesis 3:15, “αὐτός”, and the other reference to the “seed,” αὐτοῦ,
are clearly the masculine “he.” But your assertion that “the masculine pronoun
“he” is used in the original Hebrew”, as in the Septuagint, is quite unwarranted!
In Genesis, “הוּא (hu)” is used for all genders, including the feminine
and neuter. Hence we observe that even within the same chapter of Genesis 3:15
the same word “הוּא (hu)” is used to mean "she" in reference to
Eve, a woman!
We
read: (Genesis 3:12): "And the man said, The woman whom thou gavest to be
with me, SHE gave me of the tree, and I did eat."
"ויאמר האדם האשׁה אשׁר נתתה עמדי הוא נתנה־לי מן־העץ ואכל׃"
Again: (Genesis
3:20): "And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because SHE was
the mother of all living."
"ויקרא האדם שׁם אשׁתו חוה כי הוא היתה אם כל־חי׃"
So the Latin Vulgate is PERFECTLY CORRECT! Hence, Pope Pius IX’s Apostolic
Constitution (a declaration of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception, Ineffabilis Deus ), reads:
“Hence, just as
Christ, the Mediator between God and man, assumed human nature, blotted the
handwriting of the decree that stood against us, and fastened it triumphantly
to the cross, so the most holy Virgin, united with him by a most intimate and
indissoluble bond, was, with him and through him, eternally at enmity with the
evil serpent, and most completely triumphed over him, and crushed his head with
her immaculate foot”